APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2024-2025 TEST BANK 300+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!

APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2024-2025 TEST
BANK 300+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY
GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!
1. A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP
suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?
a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar virus.
Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following incubation
period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or
occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made
using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC.
2. A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3
days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract
infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate medication to
treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7-10
days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
3. Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
c. Topical tetracycline
d. Isotretinoin)
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with severe
inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the patient. A woman of
childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is
teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic
effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
4. An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should be
instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection
d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive
Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine (Tegretol),
primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) reduce the
effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections or levonorgestrelreleasing intrauterine devices would be a better method of contraceptiv